As the narrative of Genesis continues, it becomes clear this ארץ is the 'land' that Abram's descendants would settle to live in, and not the whole planet. Taking the Hebrew scriptures in their present shape, the 'earliest' place we find this specific combination of the verb 'inherit' (ירש) and the noun ארץ is in Genesis 15.7, where God promises an ארץ to Abram that he will 'inherit'. So to fully grasp which definition of 'earth' is being used, we should understand it as it is used in conjunction with 'inherit' (Greek κληρονομεω Hebrew ירש). The same is true for the Hebrew word (ארץ, 'erets), used in Psalm 37.11. Something to take note of is that the Greek word for 'earth' (γην, gen) in Matthew 5.5 and LXX Psalm 36.11 can just as well be translated 'land' or even 'ground'. This would immediately suggest the Jesus logia in question was following a common expression of Jewish thought, so we're justified in keeping it a part of the discussion. In both cases, it is the 'πραεις' (meek, mild) who will inherit. A simple way to verify this is to compare Matthew 5.5 with the Greek translation of the other verse provided in the original question.
We want to be careful not to group it with those texts if they're not even using the same language. To start, we should double check that Matthew 5.5 is relevant to interpreting any texts from the Hebrew scriptures ('Old Testament'). Is Matthew 5.5 in the same line of thought?
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